[proof]
**Proof of Uniqueness**
Let $f$ and $g$ be two non-negative, measurable [functions](/page/Function) such that for any Borel set $A \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$, we have
\begin{align*}
\nu(A) = \int_A f \, d\mu \quad \text{and} \quad \nu(A) = \int_A g \, d\mu.
\end{align*}
Our goal is to show that $f = g$ holds $\mu$-almost everywhere.
**Step 1 (Define the set where f > g)**
Let's define the set $E^+ = \{ x \in \mathbb{R}^n : f(x) > g(x) \}$. Our first goal is to show that $\mu(E^+) = 0$.
**Step 2 (Use the integral property on E+)**
By our assumption, the integral representations for $\nu$ must hold for the specific set $E^+$. Therefore,
\begin{align*}
\nu(E^+) = \int_{E^+} f \, d\mu \quad \text{and} \quad \nu(E^+) = \int_{E^+} g \, d\mu.
\end{align*}
Since both expressions equal $\nu(E^+)$, they must be equal to each other:
\begin{align*}
\int_{E^+} f \, d\mu = \int_{E^+} g \, d\mu.
\end{align*}
**Step 3 (Show the integral of the difference is zero)**
By the linearity of the integral, we can rearrange the equation from Step 2. Since $f$ and $g$ are non-negative, their integrals over $E^+$ are finite if $\nu(E^+) < \infty$. If $\nu(E^+) = \infty$, we use a standard argument based on $\sigma$-finiteness, restricting to subsets where the measure is finite. Let's assume for now that the integrals are finite.
\begin{align*}
\int_{E^+} f \, d\mu - \int_{E^+} g \, d\mu &= 0 \\
\int_{E^+} (f - g) \, d\mu &= 0.
\end{align*}
**Step 4 (Deduce that μ(E+) = 0)**
Let $h(x) = f(x) - g(x)$. By the definition of the set $E^+$, we have $h(x) > 0$ for all $x \in E^+$. The integral of a strictly positive function over a set can only be zero if the set itself has measure zero. To be formal, let $E^+_k = \{x \in E^+ : f(x) - g(x) > 1/k\}$ for $k \in \mathbb{N}$. Then $E^+ = \bigcup_{k=1}^\infty E^+_k$. We have
\begin{align*}
0 = \int_{E^+} (f-g) \, d\mu \ge \int_{E^+_k} (f-g) \, d\mu > \int_{E^+_k} \frac{1}{k} \, d\mu = \frac{1}{k} \mu(E^+_k).
\end{align*}
This implies $\frac{1}{k} \mu(E^+_k) \le 0$, and since $\mu$ is a non-negative measure, we must have $\mu(E^+_k) = 0$ for all $k \ge 1$. By the countable sub-additivity of measures,
\begin{align*}
\mu(E^+) = \mu\left(\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty E^+_k\right) \le \sum_{k=1}^\infty \mu(E^+_k) = \sum_{k=1}^\infty 0 = 0.
\end{align*}
Thus, $\mu(E^+) = 0$.
**Step 5 (Repeat for the set where g > f)**
An identical argument applies to the set $E^- = \{ x \in \mathbb{R}^n : g(x) > f(x) \}$. Following the same steps, we conclude that $\mu(E^-) = 0$.
**Step 6 (Conclude f = g μ-almost everywhere)**
The set where $f$ and $g$ are not equal is the union of the sets where they differ: $\{x : f(x) \neq g(x)\} = E^+ \cup E^-$. Using the additivity of the measure $\mu$,
\begin{align*}
\mu(\{x : f(x) \neq g(x)\}) = \mu(E^+ \cup E^-) \le \mu(E^+) + \mu(E^-) = 0 + 0 = 0.
\end{align*}
Therefore, the set of points where $f$ and $g$ differ has $\mu$-measure zero, which means $f = g$ $\mu$-almost everywhere.
[/proof]