[example: Helmholtz Equation At Resonance In One Dimension]
Let $U = (0, \pi) \subset \mathbb{R}$ and consider the Dirichlet eigenvalue problem for $-u''$ on $H^1_0((0, \pi))$. The eigenvalues and normalised eigenfunctions are
\begin{align*}
\lambda_k &= k^2, \quad w_k(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}} \sin(kx), \quad k = 1, 2, 3, \ldots
\end{align*}
Now consider the Helmholtz equation at the first eigenvalue $\lambda_1 = 1$:
\begin{align*}
-u'' - u &= f \quad \text{in } (0, \pi), \\
u(0) = u(\pi) &= 0,
\end{align*}
for a given $f \in L^2((0, \pi))$. The operator $L = -\partial_{xx}$ is self-adjoint on $H^1_0((0, \pi))$, and the equation $Lu - u = f$ can be rewritten in Fredholm form $(I - \tilde{K})u = h$ by shifting: choose $\gamma = 2$ so that $L_\gamma = -\partial_{xx} + 2I$ is coercive. The resolvent $K = j \circ L_\gamma^{-1} \circ \iota: L^2 \to L^2$ is compact and self-adjoint (since $L$ is self-adjoint), with $\tilde{K} = (\gamma + 1)K = 3K$. The four conclusions of the Fredholm Alternative give the following.
**Conclusion (1)** (finite-dimensional kernel): The kernel of $I - \tilde{K}$ corresponds to the eigenspace of $-\partial_{xx}$ at $\lambda_1 = 1$. The homogeneous equation $-u'' - u = 0$ with Dirichlet conditions has general solution $u(x) = A\sin(x) + B\cos(x)$; the boundary condition $u(0) = 0$ forces $B = 0$, and $u(\pi) = 0$ is automatically satisfied. So
\begin{align*}
\ker(I - \tilde{K}) &= \operatorname{span}\{\sin\},
\end{align*}
which is one-dimensional, as guaranteed by the theorem.
**Conclusion (2)** (solvability condition): The range of $I - \tilde{K}$ is the orthogonal complement of the adjoint kernel. Since $L$ is self-adjoint, $\tilde{K}$ is self-adjoint, so $\ker(I - \tilde{K}^*) = \ker(I - \tilde{K}) = \operatorname{span}\{\sin\}$. Therefore
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{Range}(I - \tilde{K}) &= \{f \in L^2((0, \pi)) : (f, \sin)_{L^2} = 0\} = \{\sin\}^\perp.
\end{align*}
The equation $-u'' - u = f$ is solvable if and only if
\begin{align*}
\int_0^\pi f(x) \sin(x) \, d\mathcal{L}^1(x) &= 0.
\end{align*}
For example, $f(x) = \sin(2x)$ satisfies this condition (since $\int_0^\pi \sin(2x) \sin(x) \, d\mathcal{L}^1(x) = 0$ by orthogonality of the eigenfunctions), so $-u'' - u = \sin(2x)$ is solvable. One can verify directly: substituting $u(x) = \frac{1}{3}\sin(2x)$ gives $-u'' - u = \frac{4}{3}\sin(2x) - \frac{1}{3}\sin(2x) = \sin(2x)$, confirming the solution. On the other hand, $f(x) = \sin(x)$ fails the condition ($\int_0^\pi \sin^2(x) \, d\mathcal{L}^1(x) = \pi/2 \neq 0$), so $-u'' - u = \sin(x)$ has no solution — the forcing resonates with the eigenmode.
**Conclusion (3)** (dimension equality): Here $\dim \ker(I - \tilde{K}) = 1$ and $\dim \ker(I - \tilde{K}^*) = 1$, so there is exactly one solvability condition on $f$ (orthogonality to $\sin$), and when it is satisfied the solution is unique up to a one-dimensional family. Concretely, if $u_0$ is any particular solution of $-u'' - u = f$, then the general solution is
\begin{align*}
u &= u_0 + c \sin, \quad c \in \mathbb{R}.
\end{align*}
One free parameter in the solution, one condition on the data — these are matched by conclusion (3).
**Conclusion (4)** (the dichotomy): Since $\ker(I - \tilde{K}) = \operatorname{span}\{\sin\} \neq \{0\}$, we are in the resonance case. If instead we considered $\lambda = 1.5$ (not an eigenvalue), the kernel would be trivial, and the theorem would give unique solvability of $-u'' - 1.5 \, u = f$ for every $f \in L^2((0, \pi))$.
[/example]