Let $E \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be Lebesgue measurable. Let $f: E \to [0,\infty]$ and $g: E \to [0,\infty]$ be Lebesgue [measurable functions](/page/Measurable%20Functions) such that $f=g$ for $\mathcal{L}^n$-a.e. $x \in E$. Then
\begin{align*}
\int_E f\, d\mathcal{L}^n = \int_E g\, d\mathcal{L}^n.
\end{align*}