[example: A Point Has Probability Zero but an Interval Does Not]
Let $X \sim \operatorname{Unif}(0,1)$, so its density is $f_X(x)=\mathbb 1_{(0,1)}(x)$. For any $a\in[0,1]$, the event $\{X=a\}$ is the same as $\{X\in\{a\}\}$, and the density formula gives
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P(X=a)=\int_{\{a\}}\mathbb 1_{(0,1)}(x)\,d\mathcal L^1(x).
\end{align*}
Since $0\le \mathbb 1_{(0,1)}(x)\le 1$ for all $x$ and $\mathcal L^1(\{a\})=0$,
\begin{align*}
0\le \int_{\{a\}}\mathbb 1_{(0,1)}(x)\,d\mathcal L^1(x)\le \int_{\{a\}}1\,d\mathcal L^1(x)=\mathcal L^1(\{a\})=0.
\end{align*}
Therefore $\mathbb P(X=a)=0$.
For the interval event,
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P(0\le X\le 1/2)=\int_{[0,1/2]}\mathbb 1_{(0,1)}(x)\,d\mathcal L^1(x).
\end{align*}
Changing the integrand at the single point $0$ does not change the integral, because $\mathcal L^1(\{0\})=0$, so
\begin{align*}
\int_{[0,1/2]}\mathbb 1_{(0,1)}(x)\,d\mathcal L^1(x)=\int_{(0,1/2]}1\,d\mathcal L^1(x).
\end{align*}
The last integral is the length of $(0,1/2]$:
\begin{align*}
\int_{(0,1/2]}1\,d\mathcal L^1(x)=\mathcal L^1((0,1/2])=\frac{1}{2}.
\end{align*}
Thus every individual point has probability $0$, while the interval $[0,1/2]$ has probability $1/2$. This is why a continuous random variable is described by probabilities of intervals, or more generally Borel sets, rather than by point probabilities.
[/example]