[guided]The goal is to prove the converse: if $f$ is inseparable, then $Df = 0$. The argument uses the interplay between irreducibility and the formal derivative.
We begin with the derivative criterion: $f$ has a repeated root if and only if $\gcd(f, Df) \neq 1$. This is a standard result whose proof uses the factorisation of $f$ in a splitting field — if $f(t) = c(t - \alpha)^2 q(t)$, then $Df(t) = c \cdot 2(t-\alpha)q(t) + c(t-\alpha)^2 Dq(t)$, so $(t - \alpha)$ divides both $f$ and $Df$, giving $\gcd(f, Df) \neq 1$. Conversely, if all roots are simple, then $f$ and $Df$ share no root, so $\gcd(f, Df) = 1$.
Now, $d := \gcd(f, Df)$ is a divisor of $f$ in $K[t]$ with $d \neq 1$. What are the possible divisors of an irreducible polynomial? By definition, $f$ is irreducible if and only if its only divisors (up to units) are $1$ and $f$ itself. Since $d \neq 1$ and $d \mid f$, we must have $d \sim f$ (where $\sim$ denotes association, i.e., $d = cf$ for some $c \in K \setminus \{0\}$). In particular, $f \mid d$.
Since $d = \gcd(f, Df)$ divides $Df$, the divisibility $f \mid d \mid Df$ gives $f \mid Df$.
Can $Df$ be non-zero? If $Df \neq 0$, then $Df$ is a non-zero polynomial with $\deg(Df) \le \deg(f) - 1 < \deg(f)$. But $f \mid Df$ and $Df \neq 0$ would require $\deg(Df) \ge \deg(f)$, a contradiction. Therefore $Df = 0$.
The key point to appreciate: in characteristic zero, this argument never triggers because an irreducible polynomial always has $\gcd(f, Df) = 1$ (since $Df \neq 0$ and $\deg(Df) = \deg(f) - 1$, so the irreducibility of $f$ prevents $f$ from dividing $Df$). It is only in characteristic $p > 0$ that the formal derivative can vanish, allowing the gcd to be non-trivial.[/guided]