[step:Define the valuation from $\bar{S}$ and verify it is a model]Define
\begin{align*}
v: L(P) &\to \{0, 1\}, \\
v(t) &= \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } t \in \bar{S}, \\ 0 & \text{if } t \notin \bar{S}. \end{cases}
\end{align*}
Equivalently, $v(t) = \mathbb{1}_{\bar{S}}(t)$.
We verify $v$ respects the propositional connectives (so that $v$ is a well-defined valuation) and that $v(t) = 1$ for every $t \in \bar{S}$ (so that $v \models \bar{S}$, hence $v \models S$).
**Respect for $\bot$:** $\bot \notin \bar{S}$ because $\bar{S}$ is consistent (if $\bot \in \bar{S}$, then $\bar{S} \vdash \bot$). Hence $v(\bot) = 0$, as required of a valuation.
**Respect for $\to$:** We show $v(t \to u) = 1$ iff ($v(t) = 0$ or $v(u) = 1$), i.e., $v(t \to u) = 1$ iff $v(t) \leq v(u)$.
*Forward.* Suppose $v(t \to u) = 1$, i.e., $t \to u \in \bar{S}$. If $v(t) = 1$, then $t \in \bar{S}$. By modus ponens applied to $\{t \to u, t\} \subseteq \bar{S}$, we have $\bar{S} \vdash u$. Then $\bar{S} \cup \{u\}$ is consistent (any derivation from $\bar{S} \cup \{u\}$ of $\bot$ would, after substituting the derivation of $u$ from $\bar{S}$, give $\bar{S} \vdash \bot$, contradiction), so by maximality $u \in \bar{S}$, giving $v(u) = 1$. Hence $v(t) \leq v(u)$.
*Reverse.* Suppose $v(t) = 0$ or $v(u) = 1$.
- **Case $v(u) = 1$:** Then $u \in \bar{S}$. The sentence $u \to (t \to u)$ is a propositional tautology (and hence provable from the empty set of premises in any standard proof system). By modus ponens, $\bar{S} \vdash t \to u$. Arguing as above (consistency of $\bar{S} \cup \{t \to u\}$ plus maximality), $t \to u \in \bar{S}$, so $v(t \to u) = 1$.
- **Case $v(t) = 0$ and $v(u) = 0$:** Then $t \notin \bar{S}$ and $u \notin \bar{S}$. By completeness (Step 5), $\neg t \in \bar{S}$. The sentence $\neg t \to (t \to u)$ — i.e., $(t \to \bot) \to (t \to u)$ — is a propositional tautology, provable in any standard axiomatisation. By modus ponens, $\bar{S} \vdash t \to u$, and (by the same consistency-and-maximality argument) $t \to u \in \bar{S}$, so $v(t \to u) = 1$.
In both cases $v(t \to u) = 1$. Combining, $v(t \to u) = 1$ iff $v(t) \leq v(u)$, which is exactly the truth-table definition of implication in a valuation.
Therefore $v$ is a valuation. By construction, $v(t) = 1$ for every $t \in \bar{S}$, so $v \models \bar{S}$. Since $S \subseteq \bar{S}$, $v \models S$, completing the proof.[/step]