[guided]We want to show that every starting state $i$ eventually reaches $j$ with probability $1$. The idea is to argue by contradiction: if there were a positive probability of never reaching $j$ from some state $i$, we could use this to construct a positive probability of the chain starting at $j$ and never returning to $j$, violating recurrence.
Define the hitting probability
\begin{align*}
f_{i,j} := \mathbb{P}_i(X_n = j \text{ for some } n \geq 1).
\end{align*}
We must show $f_{i,j} = 1$ for every $i \in S$.
Since the chain is irreducible, $j \to i$. Among all integers $n \geq 1$ with $p_{j,i}(n) > 0$, choose the smallest; call it $m$. Why does minimality matter? Because it forces the chain to avoid $j$ at intermediate times. If the chain visited $j$ at some intermediate time $r \in \{1, \ldots, m-1\}$, then by the [Chapman--Kolmogorov Equations](/theorems/2207), $p_{j,i}(m - r) \geq p_{j,j}(r) \cdot p_{j,i}(m-r)$, and more directly, the existence of a path from $j$ to $j$ to $i$ in $r + (m-r) = m$ steps that passes through $j$ at time $r$ would mean $p_{j,i}(m-r) > 0$ with $m - r < m$, contradicting the minimality of $m$. Therefore the entire $m$-step probability $p_{j,i}(m)$ is concentrated on paths that avoid $j$ at intermediate times:
\begin{align*}
p_{j,i}(m) = \mathbb{P}_j(X_m = i,\; X_r \neqeq j \text{ for } 1 \leq r \leq m-1).
\end{align*}
Now consider starting at $j$, reaching $i$ at time $m$ (while avoiding $j$), and then never visiting $j$ again. By the [Strong Markov Property](/theorems/2208), conditional on $X_m = i$, the future evolution after time $m$ is an independent copy of the chain started at $i$, so the probability of never reaching $j$ from time $m$ onward is exactly $1 - f_{i,j}$. Hence the probability of this combined event is
\begin{align*}
\mathbb{P}_j(A) = p_{j,i}(m)(1 - f_{i,j}).
\end{align*}
The event $A$ is contained in the event that the chain, starting from $j$, never returns to $j$ (since $j$ is not visited at intermediate times $1, \ldots, m-1$, and not visited after time $m$ either). The probability of never returning to $j$ from $j$ is $1 - f_{j,j}$. Therefore
\begin{align*}
p_{j,i}(m)(1 - f_{i,j}) \leq 1 - f_{j,j}.
\end{align*}
Since $j$ is recurrent, $f_{j,j} = 1$ by the definition of recurrence, so the right-hand side is $0$. Since $p_{j,i}(m) > 0$ (by construction), we must have $1 - f_{i,j} = 0$, giving $f_{i,j} = 1$.
What would fail without recurrence? If $j$ were transient, then $1 - f_{j,j} > 0$, and the inequality would only give $1 - f_{i,j} \leq (1 - f_{j,j}) / p_{j,i}(m)$, which does not force $f_{i,j} = 1$. The recurrence hypothesis is essential.[/guided]