[guided]The Lusin property is a descriptive-set-theoretic regularity condition: a topological space $Y$ is Lusin if there exist a Polish space $P$ and a homeomorphism of $Y$ onto a Borel subset of $P$. The plan is to take $P = \Pi$, the ambient product, and exhibit $\mathcal{C}_1$ as Borel inside it via the signature map.
**The ambient space is Polish.** Recall the construction. Each tensor power $V^{\otimes i}$ is a finite-dimensional real vector space (of dimension $(\dim V)^i$). All norms on a finite-dimensional real vector space induce the same topology, and that topology is the Euclidean topology — separable, completely metrisable, hence Polish. The countable product
\begin{align*}
\Pi := \prod_{i=0}^\infty V^{\otimes i}
\end{align*}
of Polish spaces is Polish in the product topology: a complete compatible metric is the standard weighted-supremum
\begin{align*}
d_\Pi\bigl((a_i)_{i\ge 0}, (b_i)_{i\ge 0}\bigr) := \sum_{i=0}^\infty 2^{-i} \min(d_i(a_i, b_i), 1),
\end{align*}
where $d_i$ is any complete metric on $V^{\otimes i}$, and a countable dense subset is built coordinate-wise. (See [Hausdorff, Separability, and Metrisability](/theorems/2504), Steps 3-4, for the full verification.)
**The signature map is a homeomorphism.** By definition of $\chi_{\mathrm{pr}}$, the topology on $\mathcal{C}_1$ is precisely the pullback under $S$ of the subspace topology on $\mathcal{S}_1 \subset \Pi$. So
\begin{align*}
S : (\mathcal{C}_1, \chi_{\mathrm{pr}}) \to (\mathcal{S}_1, \text{subspace topology})
\end{align*}
is a homeomorphism by construction.
**Reduction.** The Lusin property is purely topological, so it transfers across homeomorphisms. We may therefore replace the question "is $(\mathcal{C}_1, \chi_{\mathrm{pr}})$ Lusin?" by "is $\mathcal{S}_1$, with its subspace topology in $\Pi$, Lusin?" The standard fact from descriptive set theory is:
**Fact.** If $P$ is Polish and $A \subset P$ is Borel, then $A$ in its subspace topology is a Lusin space.
(Proof sketch: a Polish space embeds as a $G_\delta$ subset of a compact metric space — for instance the Hilbert cube $[0,1]^\mathbb{N}$. A Borel subset of a Polish space is Borel inside that compact metric ambient. So $A$ is homeomorphic to a Borel subset of a compact metric space, which is the original definition of Lusin.)
Applying this with $P = \Pi$ and $A = \mathcal{S}_1$: it suffices to prove that $\mathcal{S}_1$ is a Borel subset of $\Pi$. The remainder of the proof is dedicated to exhibiting this Borel structure explicitly via the length balls.
**Why the explicit exhibition matters.** One might be tempted to argue abstractly that $\mathcal{S}_1$ is Borel because it is the continuous image of a Polish space (some other description of $C_{0,1}(V)$). But continuous images of Borel sets need not be Borel — they are *analytic*, a strictly larger class. So we must exhibit $\mathcal{S}_1$ as a Borel set in a constructive way. The next steps do this by writing $\mathcal{S}_1$ as a countable union of closed sets (an $F_\sigma$ set), which is automatically Borel.[/guided]