[guided]If $M(0) = 0$, then $|f(it)| = 0$ for all $t \in \mathbb{R}$, meaning $f$ vanishes on the entire line $\operatorname{Re}(z) = 0$. We need to show $f \equiv 0$ on the strip. The [Identity Theorem for Analytic Functions](/theorems/208) requires zeros to accumulate at a point in the domain of holomorphy. The zeros of $f$ on $\operatorname{Re}(z) = 0$ lie on the boundary of $S$, not in its interior, so we cannot apply the identity theorem directly.
Instead, we use the Schwarz reflection principle: define $g(z) = f(z)$ for $z \in \overline{S}$ and $g(z) = \overline{f(\bar{z})}$ for $\operatorname{Re}(z) < 0$. Since $f(it) = 0$ for all $t$, the function $g$ is holomorphic on the wider strip $\{-1 < \operatorname{Re}(z) < 1\}$. The zeros $\{it : t \in \mathbb{R}\}$ accumulate at $0$, which is now an interior point, so by the [Identity Theorem for Analytic Functions](/theorems/208), $g \equiv 0$, hence $f \equiv 0$ on $S$.
Therefore $M(x) = 0$ for all $x \in [0,1]$. At each $x$, the bound $M(x) \le M(0)^{1-x} M(1)^x$ holds: for $x \in (0,1)$, both sides are $0$ (using the convention $0^a = 0$ for $a > 0$); at $x = 0$, the RHS is $M(0)^1 M(1)^0 = 0$; at $x = 1$, the RHS is $M(0)^0 M(1)^1 = M(1)$, and $M(1) = \sup_t |f(1+it)| = 0$ since $f \equiv 0$. The case $M(1) = 0$ is symmetric. We assume $M(0), M(1) > 0$ for the rest of the proof.
The normalisation strategy is: multiply $f$ by a holomorphic function of $z$ alone that adjusts the modulus to be at most $1$ on both boundary lines. Define
\begin{align*}
F(z) &= M(0)^{z-1} \cdot M(1)^{-z} \cdot f(z),
\end{align*}
where $M(0)^{z-1} := e^{(z-1)\log M(0)}$ and $M(1)^{-z} := e^{-z\log M(1)}$. These exponentials use the real logarithm (since $M(0), M(1) > 0$), so they are entire functions of $z$.
Why this particular choice? The modulus of $M(0)^{z-1}$ is $M(0)^{\operatorname{Re}(z)-1} = M(0)^{x-1}$, and the modulus of $M(1)^{-z}$ is $M(1)^{-\operatorname{Re}(z)} = M(1)^{-x}$. So $|F(x+it)| = M(0)^{x-1} M(1)^{-x} |f(x+it)|$. On $x = 0$: $|F(it)| = M(0)^{-1} |f(it)| \le 1$. On $x = 1$: $|F(1+it)| = M(1)^{-1} |f(1+it)| \le 1$. The exponential multiplier is tuned to normalise the supremum to $1$ on each boundary line.
If we can show $|F(z)| \le 1$ throughout the strip, then $|f(z)| = M(0)^{1-x} M(1)^x |F(z)| \le M(0)^{1-x} M(1)^x$, which gives the result.[/guided]