[guided]We want a quantity that absorbs the $\beta\phi$ term in the inequality $\phi' \le \beta\phi$ and converts it into a monotonicity statement. The classical recipe is an **integrating factor**: a strictly positive multiplier $\mu(t)$ whose [derivative](/page/Derivative) is $-\beta(t)\,\mu(t)$, so that the product rule produces a cancellation. The unique such $\mu$ (up to scaling) with $\mu(0) = 1$ is the exponential of the antiderivative $-\int_0^\cdot \beta\,d\mathcal{L}^1$. We build it carefully and verify each hypothesis needed to differentiate it.
First, define the antiderivative
\begin{align*}
B: [0,T] &\to \mathbb{R} \\
t &\mapsto \int_0^t \beta(s)\,d\mathcal{L}^1(s).
\end{align*}
The codomain is $\mathbb{R}$ because $\beta$ may take any sign — note that the argument below never uses the sign of $\beta$, only its integrability. To apply the [Fundamental Theorem of Calculus for Lebesgue Integrals](/theorems/???) (which says: if $f \in L^1([0,T])$, then $F(t) := \int_0^t f\,d\mathcal{L}^1$ is absolutely continuous with $F' = f$ $\mathcal{L}^1$-a.e.), we must check $\beta \in L^1([0,T])$. This is exactly the [integrable](/page/Integral) hypothesis on $\beta$. The theorem therefore gives:
- $B$ is absolutely continuous on $[0,T]$,
- $B'(t) = \beta(t)$ for $\mathcal{L}^1$-a.e.\ $t \in [0,T]$,
- $B(0) = 0$ (the integral over $[0,0]$ vanishes).
Now define
\begin{align*}
\mu: [0,T] &\to (0,\infty) \\
t &\mapsto \exp(-B(t)).
\end{align*}
Why is the codomain $(0,\infty)$? Because $\exp: \mathbb{R} \to (0,\infty)$ is strictly positive, so $\mu(t) = \exp(-B(t)) > 0$ for every $t \in [0,T]$, regardless of the sign of $B(t)$.
To compute $\mu'$, we want to apply the [Chain Rule for Absolutely Continuous Functions](/theorems/???): if $g: [0,T] \to \mathbb{R}$ is absolutely continuous and $F: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is $C^1$ (or merely locally Lipschitz, which is enough), then $F \circ g$ is absolutely continuous with $(F \circ g)'(t) = F'(g(t))\,g'(t)$ for $\mathcal{L}^1$-a.e.\ $t$. Here $g = -B$ is absolutely continuous (negation preserves absolute continuity), and $F = \exp$ is $C^1$ on $\mathbb{R}$ with $F' = \exp$. Both hypotheses hold, so the chain rule applies and yields
\begin{align*}
\mu'(t) &= \exp(-B(t)) \cdot (-B'(t)) = -\beta(t)\,\mu(t)
\end{align*}
for $\mathcal{L}^1$-a.e.\ $t \in [0,T]$.
Why insist on the AC chain rule rather than the classical $C^1$ chain rule? Because $B$ need not be differentiable everywhere — only $\mathcal{L}^1$-a.e. The AC chain rule is the correct tool whenever one of the factors is only differentiable a.e. but is still absolutely continuous.
Finally, record two facts we will need later: $\mu(0) = \exp(0) = 1$, and $\mu(t) > 0$ for every $t \in [0,T]$ (strict positivity of the exponential). Strict positivity is what allows us to divide by $\mu(t)$ in the last step.[/guided]