[guided]The vanishing statement says that a certain quotient vector space is zero. We now unpack that quotient to obtain the explicit solution of the $\bar\partial$-equation.
Fix $p\in\{0,1,\ldots,n\}$ and $q\geq 1$. The condition $q\geq 1$ ensures that the degree $q-1$ appearing in the unknown form is nonnegative. Define
\begin{align*}
Z^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)
&= \{\eta\in \mathcal{E}^{p,q}(X):\bar\partial_{p,q}\eta=0\},
\\
B^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)
&= \{\bar\partial_{p,q-1}v:v\in \mathcal{E}^{p,q-1}(X)\}.
\end{align*}
The space $Z^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)$ consists of $\bar\partial$-closed smooth $(p,q)$-forms, while $B^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)$ consists of $\bar\partial$-exact smooth $(p,q)$-forms.
By the definition of Dolbeault cohomology,
\begin{align*}
H^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X) &= Z^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)/B^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X).
\end{align*}
The vanishing already proved gives
\begin{align*}
H^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X) &= 0.
\end{align*}
Thus every class in the quotient is zero, which is equivalent to saying that every $\bar\partial$-closed smooth $(p,q)$-form is already $\bar\partial$-exact:
\begin{align*}
Z^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X) &= B^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X).
\end{align*}
Now let $\omega\in\mathcal{E}^{p,q}(X)$ be $\bar\partial$-closed. By definition of $\bar\partial$-closedness,
\begin{align*}
\bar\partial_{p,q}\omega &= 0,
\end{align*}
so $\omega\in Z^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)$. Since $Z^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)=B^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)$, the form $\omega$ belongs to $B^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)$. By the definition of $B^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X)$, there exists a smooth form $u\in\mathcal{E}^{p,q-1}(X)$ such that
\begin{align*}
\bar\partial_{p,q-1}u &= \omega.
\end{align*}
This is precisely the assertion that $\bar\partial u=\omega$.[/guided]