[step:Prove that the projective map is injective and immersive]
Let $p,q \in X$ with $p\neq q$. Since the linear system separates points, there exists $s \in V$ with
\begin{align*}
s(p)&=0, & s(q)&\neq 0.
\end{align*}
Choose local holomorphic frames $e_p$ of $\mathcal{O}_X(D)$ near $p$ and $e_q$ of $\mathcal{O}_X(D)$ near $q$. For each basis section $s_i$, write $s_i=u_{i,p}e_p$ near $p$ and $s_i=u_{i,q}e_q$ near $q$, where $u_{i,p}$ and $u_{i,q}$ are holomorphic complex-valued functions on the corresponding neighbourhoods. If $\Phi(p)=\Phi(q)$, then the two nonzero coordinate vectors
\begin{align*}
(u_{0,p}(p),\dots,u_{N,p}(p))
\end{align*}
and
\begin{align*}
(u_{0,q}(q),\dots,u_{N,q}(q))
\end{align*}
represent the same point of $\mathbb{P}^N_{\mathbb{C}}$, so they are proportional by some scalar $\lambda \in \mathbb{C}^{\times}$. Express $s=\sum_{i=0}^N c_i s_i$ with $c_i \in \mathbb{C}$. Then
\begin{align*}
0=s(p)&=\left(\sum_{i=0}^N c_i u_{i,p}(p)\right)e_p(p)
\end{align*}
implies $\sum_{i=0}^N c_i u_{i,p}(p)=0$, and proportionality gives
\begin{align*}
\sum_{i=0}^N c_i u_{i,q}(q)&=\lambda \sum_{i=0}^N c_i u_{i,p}(p)=0.
\end{align*}
Hence $s(q)=0$, contradicting $s(q)\neq 0$. Therefore $\Phi(p)\neq \Phi(q)$, so $\Phi$ is injective.
Now fix $p \in X$. From tangent separation, choose $a,b \in V$ such that $a(p)\neq 0$ and $b$ vanishes to order exactly $1$ at $p$. In the affine chart of $\mathbb{P}^N_{\mathbb{C}}$ where the coordinate corresponding to $a$ is nonzero, the map $\Phi$ has a holomorphic coordinate function equal to $b/a$. The derivative of $b/a$ at $p$ is nonzero, so
\begin{align*}
d\Phi_p:T_pX&\to T_{\Phi(p)}\mathbb{P}^N_{\mathbb{C}}
\end{align*}
is injective. Since $p$ was arbitrary and $\dim_{\mathbb{C}}T_pX=1$, $\Phi$ is a holomorphic immersion.
[/step]