[step:Extend supporting linear functionals dominated by the sublinear function]We prove the finite-dimensional dominated extension fact needed for the reverse support inequality.
[claim:Finite-dimensional dominated extension]
Let $E \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be a linear subspace, let
\begin{align*}
L: E \to \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}
be linear, and suppose that
\begin{align*}
L(y) \leq p(y) \qquad \text{for every } y \in E.
\end{align*}
Then there exists a linear functional
\begin{align*}
\ell: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}
such that $\ell|_E=L$ and
\begin{align*}
\ell(v) \leq p(v) \qquad \text{for every } v \in \mathbb{R}^n.
\end{align*}
[/claim]
[proof]
It is enough to extend across one new dimension at a time. Suppose $E \neq \mathbb{R}^n$ and choose $a \in \mathbb{R}^n \setminus E$. Define the enlarged subspace
\begin{align*}
E_a := E + \operatorname{span}\{a\}.
\end{align*}
Every element of $E_a$ has a unique representation $y+ta$ with $y \in E$ and $t \in \mathbb{R}$.
We first choose a real number $\alpha$ so that the formula
\begin{align*}
L_a(y+ta) := L(y) + t\alpha
\end{align*}
defines an extension dominated by $p$. For $y,z \in E$, subadditivity of $p$ and domination of $L$ on $E$ give
\begin{align*}
L(y)+L(z)
= L(y+z)
\leq p(y+z)
= p((y-a)+(z+a))
\leq p(y-a)+p(z+a).
\end{align*}
Therefore
\begin{align*}
L(y)-p(y-a) \leq p(z+a)-L(z)
\end{align*}
for every $y,z \in E$. Hence
\begin{align*}
\sup_{y \in E}\bigl(L(y)-p(y-a)\bigr)
\leq
\inf_{z \in E}\bigl(p(z+a)-L(z)\bigr)
\end{align*}
in the extended order. The endpoint quantities are finite [real numbers](/page/Real%20Numbers). Indeed, fixing $z=0$ in the preceding inequality gives
\begin{align*}
L(y)-p(y-a) \leq p(a)-L(0)=p(a)
\end{align*}
for every $y \in E$, so the supremum is bounded above. Fixing $y=0$ gives
\begin{align*}
-p(-a)=L(0)-p(-a) \leq p(z+a)-L(z)
\end{align*}
for every $z \in E$, so the infimum is bounded below. Since $0 \in E$, both indexing sets are non-empty, and therefore the interval
\begin{align*}
\left[
\sup_{y \in E}\bigl(L(y)-p(y-a)\bigr),
\inf_{z \in E}\bigl(p(z+a)-L(z)\bigr)
\right]
\end{align*}
is a non-empty real interval. Choose
\begin{align*}
\alpha \in \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}
inside this interval.
Define
\begin{align*}
L_a: E_a &\to \mathbb{R} \\
y+ta &\mapsto L(y)+t\alpha.
\end{align*}
The unique representation in $E_a$ makes $L_a$ well-defined, and the formula is linear.
We verify domination by $p$. If $t=0$, then $L_a(y)=L(y)\leq p(y)$. If $t>0$, put $z=t^{-1}y \in E$. Since $\alpha \leq p(z+a)-L(z)$, positive homogeneity of $p$ gives
\begin{align*}
L_a(y+ta)
= t(L(z)+\alpha)
\leq t p(z+a)
= p(y+ta).
\end{align*}
If $t<0$, put $s=-t>0$ and $z=s^{-1}y \in E$. Since $\alpha \geq L(z)-p(z-a)$, we obtain
\begin{align*}
L_a(y+ta)
= L(y)-s\alpha
= s(L(z)-\alpha)
\leq s p(z-a)
= p(y-sa)
= p(y+ta).
\end{align*}
Thus $L_a \leq p$ on $E_a$.
Repeating this one-dimensional extension finitely many times along a basis completion from $E$ to $\mathbb{R}^n$ produces the desired linear functional $\ell: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$.
[/proof]
Now fix $u \in \mathbb{R}^n$ with $u \neq 0$. Define
\begin{align*}
E_u := \operatorname{span}\{u\}
\end{align*}
and define the linear functional
\begin{align*}
L_u: E_u &\to \mathbb{R} \\
tu &\mapsto t\,p(u).
\end{align*}
This is well-defined because $u \neq 0$. We check that $L_u$ is dominated by $p$ on $E_u$. If $t \geq 0$, then positive homogeneity gives
\begin{align*}
L_u(tu)=t\,p(u)=p(tu).
\end{align*}
If $t<0$, then $-t>0$, and subadditivity applied to $u+(-u)=0$ gives
\begin{align*}
0=p(0)\leq p(u)+p(-u),
\end{align*}
so $-p(u)\leq p(-u)$. Hence
\begin{align*}
L_u(tu)
= (-t)(-p(u))
\leq (-t)p(-u)
= p(tu).
\end{align*}
By the finite-dimensional dominated extension claim, there exists a linear functional
\begin{align*}
\ell_u: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}
such that $\ell_u|_{E_u}=L_u$ and
\begin{align*}
\ell_u(v)\leq p(v) \qquad \text{for every } v \in \mathbb{R}^n.
\end{align*}
Using the standard Euclidean basis $(e_1,\dots,e_n)$ of $\mathbb{R}^n$, define
\begin{align*}
x_u := \sum_{i=1}^n \ell_u(e_i)e_i \in \mathbb{R}^n.
\end{align*}
For every $v=\sum_{i=1}^n v_i e_i \in \mathbb{R}^n$,
\begin{align*}
\langle x_u,v\rangle
= \sum_{i=1}^n \ell_u(e_i)v_i
= \ell_u(v).
\end{align*}
Therefore
\begin{align*}
\langle x_u,v\rangle \leq p(v) \qquad \text{for every } v \in \mathbb{R}^n,
\end{align*}
so $x_u \in K$. Moreover,
\begin{align*}
\langle x_u,u\rangle = \ell_u(u)=L_u(u)=p(u).
\end{align*}[/step]