[guided]We want to express $1-\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)$ as a quantity that can be compared directly with the Hellinger affinity. The natural object is the common mass of the two densities, namely the integral of their pointwise minimum.
For each measurable set $A\in\mathcal{F}$, the Radon--Nikodym representations give
\begin{align*}
P(A)-Q(A)=\int_A (p-q)\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
To identify the supremum in the definition of total variation, define $E:=\{\omega\in\Omega:p(\omega)>q(\omega)\}$. This set is measurable because $p$ and $q$ are measurable. For each $B\in\mathcal{F}$, let $\mathbb{1}_B:\Omega\to\{0,1\}$ denote the indicator function of $B$, defined by $\mathbb{1}_B(\omega)=1$ if $\omega\in B$ and $\mathbb{1}_B(\omega)=0$ if $\omega\notin B$. Define the positive and negative parts of the measurable function $p-q:\Omega\to\mathbb{R}$ by
\begin{align*}
(p-q)^+(\omega):=\max\{p(\omega)-q(\omega),0\}, \qquad (p-q)^-(\omega):=\max\{q(\omega)-p(\omega),0\}.
\end{align*}
These functions separate the signed density difference into its upward and downward deviations. For every $A\in\mathcal{F}$, the pointwise inequality $(p-q)\mathbb{1}_A\leq (p-q)^+$ gives
\begin{align*}
P(A)-Q(A)\leq \int_\Omega (p-q)^+\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
On the other hand, $(p-q)\mathbb{1}_E=(p-q)^+$, so
\begin{align*}
P(E)-Q(E)=\int_\Omega (p-q)^+\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
This proves the largest positive deviation, but total variation uses an absolute value, so we must also rule out a larger negative deviation. Since both $P$ and $Q$ are probability measures,
\begin{align*}
\int_\Omega (p-q)\,d\mu=P(\Omega)-Q(\Omega)=0.
\end{align*}
Writing $(p-q)=(p-q)^+-(p-q)^-$ and using integrability of the positive and negative parts, we obtain
\begin{align*}
\int_\Omega (p-q)^+\,d\mu=\int_\Omega (p-q)^-\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
Now for every $A\in\mathcal{F}$,
\begin{align*}
Q(A)-P(A)=\int_A(q-p)\,d\mu\leq \int_\Omega(q-p)^+\,d\mu=\int_\Omega(p-q)^-\,d\mu=\int_\Omega(p-q)^+\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
Thus both $P(A)-Q(A)$ and $Q(A)-P(A)$ are bounded above by the same quantity, so
\begin{align*}
|P(A)-Q(A)|\leq \int_\Omega (p-q)^+\,d\mu
\end{align*}
for every $A\in\mathcal{F}$. Since equality is attained at $E$,
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)=\int_\Omega (p-q)^+\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
Pointwise, the positive part satisfies
\begin{align*}
(p-q)^+=p-\min\{p,q\}.
\end{align*}
Indeed, if $p\geq q$, then $(p-q)^+=p-q=p-\min\{p,q\}$; if $p<q$, then both sides are $0$. Therefore
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)=\int_\Omega \bigl(p-\min\{p,q\}\bigr)\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
By linearity of the integral for non-negative finite integrable functions,
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)=\int_\Omega p\,d\mu-\int_\Omega \min\{p,q\}\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
Since $p=dP/d\mu$ and $P$ is a probability measure,
\begin{align*}
\int_\Omega p\,d\mu=P(\Omega)=1.
\end{align*}
Substituting this gives
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)=1-\int_\Omega \min\{p,q\}\,d\mu,
\end{align*}
or equivalently
\begin{align*}
1-\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)=\int_\Omega \min\{p,q\}\,d\mu.
\end{align*}
This identity converts the problem into proving that the overlap integral dominates one half of the square of the Hellinger affinity.[/guided]