[step:Represent total variation using the likelihood ratio]Let $L: \Omega \to [0,\infty]$ be a Radon--Nikodym derivative of $Q$ with respect to $P$, so that $L(\omega)=\frac{dQ}{dP}(\omega)$ for $P$-a.e. $\omega \in \Omega$. Since $Q$ is a probability measure and $Q \ll P$, $L$ is $\mathcal{F}$-measurable and satisfies
\begin{align*}
Q(A)=\int_A L\, dP(\omega)
\end{align*}
for every $A \in \mathcal{F}$. Hence, for every $A \in \mathcal{F}$,
\begin{align*}
Q(A)-P(A)=\int_A L\, dP(\omega)-\int_A 1\, dP(\omega)=\int_A (L-1)\, dP(\omega).
\end{align*}
Therefore,
\begin{align*}
|Q(A)-P(A)|\leq \int_A |L-1|\, dP(\omega)\leq \int_\Omega |L-1|\, dP(\omega).
\end{align*}
Taking the supremum over $A \in \mathcal{F}$ gives
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)
\leq \int_\Omega |L-1|\, dP(\omega).
\end{align*}
In fact the sharper identity is
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)
= \frac{1}{2}\int_\Omega |L-1|\, dP(\omega).
\end{align*}
To see this, define the measurable set
\begin{align*}
B := \{\omega \in \Omega : L(\omega)\geq 1\}.
\end{align*}
Since
\begin{align*}
\int_\Omega (L-1)\, dP(\omega)
=Q(\Omega)-P(\Omega)=0,
\end{align*}
the positive and negative parts of $L-1$ have equal $P$-integrals. Thus
\begin{align*}
\int_B (L-1)\, dP(\omega)
= \frac{1}{2}\int_\Omega |L-1|\, dP(\omega).
\end{align*}
For any $A \in \mathcal{F}$,
\begin{align*}
\int_A (L-1)\, dP(\omega)
\leq \int_B (L-1)\, dP(\omega),
\end{align*}
because $B$ is exactly the set where $L-1$ is non-negative. For $P(A)-Q(A)$, write $P(A)-Q(A)=\int_A(1-L)\,dP(\omega)$ and use the measurable set $\Omega\setminus B=\{\omega\in\Omega:L(\omega)<1\}$, where $1-L$ is non-negative, to obtain the corresponding upper bound. Thus the absolute value bound holds, and equality is attained at $A=B$. Hence
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{TV}(P,Q)
= \frac{1}{2}\int_\Omega |L-1|\, dP(\omega).
\end{align*}[/step]