[guided]Let $m_0=M_X(\lambda_0)$ and $m_1=M_X(\lambda_1)$. Since $\lambda_0,\lambda_1\in D_X$, both constants are finite, and they are strictly positive because $e^{\lambda_iX}>0$ pointwise for $i\in\{0,1\}$. Define measurable random variables $A:\Omega\to(0,\infty)$ and $B:\Omega\to(0,\infty)$ by
\begin{align*}
A(\omega)=\frac{e^{\lambda_0X(\omega)}}{m_0},
\qquad
B(\omega)=\frac{e^{\lambda_1X(\omega)}}{m_1}.
\end{align*}
Then $A$ and $B$ are integrable and satisfy $\mathbb E[A]=1$ and $\mathbb E[B]=1$. The normalization was chosen so that the endpoint exponentials have expectation exactly $1$, which allows a pointwise inequality to turn directly into a useful expectation estimate.
We first prove the scalar inequality being used. For $a,b>0$ and $0<\theta<1$, define the auxiliary function $\phi:(0,\infty)\to\mathbb R$ by
\begin{align*}
\phi(r)=(1-\theta)+\theta r-r^\theta.
\end{align*}
Its derivative is
\begin{align*}
\phi'(r)=\theta-\theta r^{\theta-1}
=\theta(1-r^{\theta-1}).
\end{align*}
Because $\theta-1<0$, the factor $r^{\theta-1}$ is greater than $1$ when $0<r<1$, equal to $1$ when $r=1$, and less than $1$ when $r>1$. Therefore $\phi$ decreases on $(0,1)$, increases on $(1,\infty)$, and has its global minimum at $r=1$. Since
\begin{align*}
\phi(1)=(1-\theta)+\theta-1=0,
\end{align*}
we obtain $\phi(r)\ge 0$ for every $r>0$. Substituting $r=b/a$ and multiplying by $a>0$ gives
\begin{align*}
a^{1-\theta}b^\theta\le (1-\theta)a+\theta b.
\end{align*}
Now apply this inequality at each point $\omega\in\Omega$ with
\begin{align*}
a=A(\omega),
\qquad
b=B(\omega).
\end{align*}
The random variables $A$ and $B$ are strictly positive, so the scalar inequality applies pointwise and gives
\begin{align*}
A(\omega)^{1-\theta}B(\omega)^\theta
\le
(1-\theta)A(\omega)+\theta B(\omega).
\end{align*}
The right-hand side is integrable because $A$ and $B$ are integrable. Taking expectations and using monotonicity of expectation gives
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[A^{1-\theta}B^\theta]\le \mathbb E[(1-\theta)A+\theta B].
\end{align*}
Linearity of expectation applies because $A$ and $B$ are integrable, so
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[(1-\theta)A+\theta B]=(1-\theta)\mathbb E[A]+\theta\mathbb E[B].
\end{align*}
Finally, the normalization gives
\begin{align*}
(1-\theta)\mathbb E[A]+\theta\mathbb E[B]=(1-\theta)+\theta=1.
\end{align*}
This is the key estimate: after normalization, the exponential corresponding to the interpolated parameter has expectation at most $1$.[/guided]