[guided]Let $R>0$ be such that $\operatorname{supp} K \subset [-R,R]$. The expectation reduces to a one-dimensional integral because each $X_i$ has density $f$ with respect to $\mathcal{L}^1$, but first we state exactly which estimator is being averaged. For each $h>0$, define the map $\hat f_{n,h}:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ by
\begin{align*}
\hat f_{n,h}(t) = \frac{1}{nh}\sum_{i=1}^n K\!\left(\frac{t-X_i}{h}\right), \qquad t\in\mathbb R.
\end{align*}
Now we check that the integrand appearing in the expectation is integrable. By the definition of a kernel of order $s$, $K\in L^1(\mathbb R)$, its zeroth moment equals $1$, and its moments of orders $1,\dots,s-1$ vanish. For $h>0$ small enough that $x+[-hR,hR]$ is contained in a neighbourhood on which $f$ is continuous, the function $f$ is bounded on the compact interval $x+[-hR,hR]$. Also $K((x-\cdot)/h)$ is supported in $x+[-hR,hR]$. To see that the rescaled kernel is integrable, define $\kappa_h:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ by $\kappa_h(y)=K((x-y)/h)$. The affine substitution $u=(x-y)/h$ gives
\begin{align*}
\int_{\mathbb R}|\kappa_h(y)|\,d\mathcal L^1(y)=h\int_{\mathbb R}|K(u)|\,d\mathcal L^1(u)<\infty.
\end{align*}
Thus $K((x-\cdot)/h)f$ is integrable with respect to $\mathcal L^1$, and for each index $i \in \{1,\dots,n\}$,
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E\!\left[K\!\left(\frac{x-X_i}{h}\right)\right]
= \int_{\mathbb{R}} K\!\left(\frac{x-y}{h}\right)f(y)\,d\mathcal{L}^1(y).
\end{align*}
The variables are identically distributed, so all $n$ summands have the same expectation. Therefore
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[\hat f_{n,h}(x)] = \frac{1}{nh}\sum_{i=1}^n \int_{\mathbb{R}} K\!\left(\frac{x-y}{h}\right)f(y)\,d\mathcal{L}^1(y).
\end{align*}
Because the $n$ summands are identical, this becomes
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[\hat f_{n,h}(x)] = \frac{1}{h}\int_{\mathbb{R}} K\!\left(\frac{x-y}{h}\right)f(y)\,d\mathcal{L}^1(y).
\end{align*}
Now apply the [change of variables formula](/theorems/22) with $u=(x-y)/h$, so $y=x-hu$. Because $h>0$, the one-dimensional [Lebesgue measure](/page/Lebesgue%20Measure) transforms by
\begin{align*}
d\mathcal{L}^1(y)=h\,d\mathcal{L}^1(u).
\end{align*}
The affine map $u \mapsto x-hu$ maps $\mathbb{R}$ onto $\mathbb{R}$, so the integration domain remains the whole real line. Substituting gives
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[\hat f_{n,h}(x)] = \frac{1}{h}\int_{\mathbb{R}} K(u)f(x-hu)\,h\,d\mathcal{L}^1(u).
\end{align*}
Cancelling the scalar factor $h$ yields
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[\hat f_{n,h}(x)] = \int_{\mathbb{R}} K(u)f(x-hu)\,d\mathcal{L}^1(u).
\end{align*}
This is the form in which the kernel moments can act directly on the Taylor expansion of $f$ at $x$.[/guided]