[guided]We want to show that the empirical leave-one averages behave like the conditional expectation defining $h_1$. Recall the objects being compared. The conditional projection function $g:E\to\mathbb R$ is defined by $g(x)=\mathbb E[h(x,X_2,\dots,X_m)]$ for $x\in E$, with $g(x)=h(x)$ when $m=1$. For $i\in\{1,\dots,n\}$, the leave-one average is
\begin{align*}
V_{n,i}:=\binom{n-1}{m-1}^{-1}\sum_{A\in\mathcal A_{n,i}} h\bigl(X_i,(X_j)_{j\in A}\bigr),
\end{align*}
where $\mathcal A_{n,i}$ is the family of subsets $A\subset\{1,\dots,n\}\setminus\{i\}$ with $|A|=m-1$. The projection error is $R_{n,i}:=V_{n,i}-g(X_i)$. The natural quantity to control is the average squared error
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n R_{n,i}^2.
\end{align*}
If $m=1$, then $V_{n,i}=h(X_i)$ and $g(X_i)=h(X_i)$ for every $i$, so $R_{n,i}=0$ for every $i$. Thus the desired convergence is immediate in that case. We now assume $m\geq 2$.
Because the observations are i.i.d. and the construction is symmetric in the index $i$, exchangeability gives
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E\left[\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n R_{n,i}^2\right]=\mathbb E[R_{n,1}^2].
\end{align*}
So it is enough to prove that the error for the first observation has vanishing second moment.
Fix $X_1$ and average over the remaining observations. For every subset $A \subset \{2,\dots,n\}$ with $|A|=m-1$, define $Y_A:=h(X_1,(X_j)_{j\in A})-\mathbb E[h(X_1,X_2,\dots,X_m)\mid X_1]$. This is the centred contribution of the tuple using $X_1$ and the observations indexed by $A$. The vector $(X_j)_{j\in A}$ has the same distribution as $(X_2,\dots,X_m)$ and is independent of $X_1$, so
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[h(X_1,(X_j)_{j\in A})\mid X_1]=g(X_1),
\end{align*}
and therefore $\mathbb E[Y_A\mid X_1]=0$. Moreover, using $\mathcal A_{n,1}$ for the subsets of $\{2,\dots,n\}$ with cardinality $m-1$,
\begin{align*}
R_{n,1}=\binom{n-1}{m-1}^{-1}\sum_{A\in\mathcal A_{n,1}}Y_A.
\end{align*}
The important point is that most pairs of summands are conditionally uncorrelated. If $A\cap B=\varnothing$, then the random vectors $(X_j)_{j\in A}$ and $(X_j)_{j\in B}$ are conditionally independent given $X_1$. Since both $Y_A$ and $Y_B$ have conditional mean $0$, conditional independence gives
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[Y_A Y_B\mid X_1]
=
\mathbb E[Y_A\mid X_1]\mathbb E[Y_B\mid X_1]
=
0.
\end{align*}
Thus only overlapping pairs of subsets can contribute to $\mathbb E[R_{n,1}^2]$.
For overlapping pairs, we use a uniform integrable bound. The fourth-moment assumption gives $h(X_1,\dots,X_m)\in L^2(\Omega,\mathcal F,\mathbb P)$. [Jensen's inequality](/theorems/1977) for conditional expectation gives
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[g(X_1)^2]\leq \mathbb E[h(X_1,\dots,X_m)^2]<\infty.
\end{align*}
Therefore define
\begin{align*}
C_h:=\mathbb E\left[\left(h(X_1,\dots,X_m)-g(X_1)\right)^2\right]<\infty.
\end{align*}
For any two subsets $A$ and $B$ of $\{2,\dots,n\}$ with $|A|=|B|=m-1$, the random variables $Y_A$ and $Y_B$ have the same second moment $C_h$, because the variables outside $X_1$ are i.i.d. and the kernel is symmetric. The [Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality](/theorems/432) in $L^2(\Omega,\mathcal F,\mathbb P)$ gives
\begin{align*}
|\mathbb E[Y_A Y_B]|\leq \mathbb E[|Y_A Y_B|]\leq \left(\mathbb E[Y_A^2]\right)^{1/2}\left(\mathbb E[Y_B^2]\right)^{1/2}=C_h.
\end{align*}
This is the bound used for every overlapping pair $A,B$.
It remains to count how many overlapping pairs there are. There are $\binom{n-1}{m-1}$ choices for $A$. Once $A$ is fixed, a subset $B$ with $|B|=m-1$ and $A\cap B\neq\varnothing$ can be counted by first choosing at least one element of $A$ that lies in $B$. This gives the upper bound
\begin{align*}
(m-1)\binom{n-2}{m-2}.
\end{align*}
The count may overcount sets $B$ that share more than one element with $A$, but an upper bound is all we need. Therefore
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[R_{n,1}^2]\leq \binom{n-1}{m-1}^{-2}\binom{n-1}{m-1}(m-1)\binom{n-2}{m-2}C_h.
\end{align*}
Canceling one copy of $\binom{n-1}{m-1}$ gives
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[R_{n,1}^2]\leq C_h(m-1)\frac{\binom{n-2}{m-2}}{\binom{n-1}{m-1}}.
\end{align*}
The ratio of binomial coefficients is
\begin{align*}
\frac{\binom{n-2}{m-2}}{\binom{n-1}{m-1}}=\frac{m-1}{n-1}.
\end{align*}
Consequently
\begin{align*}
\mathbb E[R_{n,1}^2]\leq C_h(m-1)\frac{m-1}{n-1}\longrightarrow 0.
\end{align*}
Since the expectation of the nonnegative random variable
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n R_{n,i}^2
\end{align*}
tends to $0$, the [Markov Inequality](/theorems/514) implies
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n R_{n,i}^2 \xrightarrow{\mathbb P}0.
\end{align*}[/guided]