[guided]Fix a perturbation $(u,v) \in \mathbb{R}^m \times \mathbb{R}^r$ such that $p(u,v)$ is finite, and take an arbitrary feasible point $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$ for the perturbed problem. Before using feasibility, we recall the global bound from dual optimality: since $(x^*,\nu^*,\rho^*)$ is primal-dual optimal for the unperturbed problem, the multiplier pair $(\nu^*,\rho^*)$ attains the dual optimum and there is no duality gap. Hence
\begin{align*}
p(0,0)=g(\nu^*,\rho^*)=\inf_{y \in \mathbb{R}^n} L(y,\nu^*,\rho^*).
\end{align*}
Thus every $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$ satisfies
\begin{align*}
p(0,0)\leq L(x,\nu^*,\rho^*).
\end{align*}
Expanding the Lagrangian gives
\begin{align*}
p(0,0)\leq f_0(x)+\sum_{i=1}^m \nu_i^* f_i(x)+(\rho^*)^\top(Ax-b).
\end{align*}
Feasibility means exactly that the perturbed inequality and equality constraints hold:
\begin{align*}
f_i(x)\leq u_i \quad \text{for each } i=1,\dots,m.
\end{align*}
It also means
\begin{align*}
Ax-b=v.
\end{align*}
The role of the sign condition $\nu^* \in \mathbb{R}^m_+$ is to let us compare the inequality-constraint term in the Lagrangian with the perturbation vector $u$. Since $\nu_i^*\geq 0$ and $f_i(x)\leq u_i$, multiplying by $\nu_i^*$ preserves the direction of the inequality:
\begin{align*}
\nu_i^* f_i(x)\leq \nu_i^* u_i.
\end{align*}
Adding these inequalities for $i=1,\dots,m$ gives
\begin{align*}
\sum_{i=1}^m \nu_i^* f_i(x)\leq \sum_{i=1}^m \nu_i^* u_i.
\end{align*}
By the definition of the Euclidean dot product in $\mathbb{R}^m$, the right-hand side is $(\nu^*)^\top u$, so
\begin{align*}
\sum_{i=1}^m \nu_i^* f_i(x)\leq (\nu^*)^\top u.
\end{align*}
For the equality constraint, there is no monotonicity issue. Feasibility gives the exact identity $Ax-b=v$, and hence
\begin{align*}
(\rho^*)^\top(Ax-b)=(\rho^*)^\top v.
\end{align*}
Now insert these two facts into the global Lagrangian lower bound
\begin{align*}
p(0,0)\leq f_0(x)+\sum_{i=1}^m \nu_i^* f_i(x)+(\rho^*)^\top(Ax-b).
\end{align*}
The inequality-constraint term is bounded above by $(\nu^*)^\top u$, and the equality-constraint term equals $(\rho^*)^\top v$, so we obtain
\begin{align*}
p(0,0)\leq f_0(x)+(\nu^*)^\top u+(\rho^*)^\top v.
\end{align*}
This is the shadow-price estimate at the level of a single feasible point $x$.
It remains to pass from one feasible point to the optimal value. Subtracting $(\nu^*)^\top u+(\rho^*)^\top v$ from both sides gives
\begin{align*}
f_0(x)\geq p(0,0)-(\nu^*)^\top u-(\rho^*)^\top v.
\end{align*}
Because the chosen point $x$ was an arbitrary element of $\mathcal{F}(u,v)$, the same lower bound holds for every feasible point of the perturbed problem. Taking the infimum of $f_0(x)$ over $x \in \mathcal{F}(u,v)$, and using the definition of $p(u,v)$, gives
\begin{align*}
p(u,v)=\inf\{f_0(x):x\in \mathcal{F}(u,v)\}\geq p(0,0)-(\nu^*)^\top u-(\rho^*)^\top v.
\end{align*}
This proves the shadow price inequality for the fixed perturbation $(u,v)$, and since the perturbation was arbitrary subject to $p(u,v)$ being finite, the theorem follows.[/guided]