[proof]
Let $x \in \partial \bar{B}$, so $\|x\| = 1$. The formula for $\lambda(x)$ gives
\begin{align*}
\lambda(x) &= \frac{-\langle x,\, x - f(x) \rangle + \sqrt{\langle x,\, x - f(x) \rangle^2 + \|x - f(x)\|^2 \cdot 0}}{\|x - f(x)\|^2} \\
&= \frac{-\langle x,\, x - f(x) \rangle + |\langle x,\, x - f(x) \rangle|}{\|x - f(x)\|^2}.
\end{align*}
Now $\langle x, x - f(x) \rangle = \|x\|^2 - \langle x, f(x) \rangle = 1 - \langle x, f(x) \rangle$. Since $f(x) \in \bar{B}$ and $\|x\| = 1$, the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality gives $\langle x, f(x) \rangle \leq \|x\| \|f(x)\| \leq 1$, so $\langle x, x - f(x) \rangle \geq 0$. Therefore $|\langle x, x - f(x) \rangle| = \langle x, x - f(x) \rangle$, and the numerator becomes
\begin{align*}
-\langle x, x - f(x) \rangle + \langle x, x - f(x) \rangle &= 0.
\end{align*}
Hence $\lambda(x) = 0$, and $r(x) = x + 0 \cdot (x - f(x)) = x$.
[/proof]