[step:Show that holomorphic pullback preserves the type of smooth forms]Let $m=\dim_{\mathbb C}Y$ and $n=\dim_{\mathbb C}X$. For a complex manifold $M$, let $A^k(M;\mathbb C)$ denote the complex [vector space](/page/Vector%20Space) of smooth complex-valued differential $k$-forms on $M$, and let
\begin{align*}
A^\bullet(M;\mathbb C):=\bigoplus_{k\geq 0}A^k(M;\mathbb C)
\end{align*}
denote the graded complex vector space of all smooth complex-valued differential forms on $M$. Let $\Lambda^{p,q}T^*M\to M$ denote the complex vector bundle of covariant differential forms of type $(p,q)$, and define
\begin{align*}
A^{p,q}(M):=\Gamma(M,\Lambda^{p,q}T^*M).
\end{align*}
Thus $A^{p,q}(Y)$ and $A^{p,q}(X)$ are the complex vector spaces of smooth complex-valued differential forms of type $(p,q)$ on $Y$ and $X$, respectively. We prove that the smooth pullback
\begin{align*}
f^*:A^\bullet(Y;\mathbb C)\to A^\bullet(X;\mathbb C)
\end{align*}
satisfies
\begin{align*}
f^*A^{p,q}(Y)\subset A^{p,q}(X)
\end{align*}
for all $p,q\geq 0$.
Fix a point $x\in X$, and put $y=f(x)$. Choose a holomorphic coordinate chart $(U,\varphi)$ on $X$ with $x\in U$ and holomorphic coordinates $(z_1,\dots,z_n)$, and choose a holomorphic coordinate chart $(V,\psi)$ on $Y$ with $y\in V$ and holomorphic coordinates $(w_1,\dots,w_m)$, after shrinking $U$ so that $f(U)\subset V$. In these coordinates, write the coordinate expression of $f|_U$ as
\begin{align*}
F:=\psi\circ f\circ \varphi^{-1}:\varphi(U)\to \psi(V)\subset \mathbb C^m.
\end{align*}
Let $F_j:\varphi(U)\to \mathbb C$ denote the $j$-th component function of $F$ for $1\leq j\leq m$. Since $f$ is holomorphic, each $F_j$ is holomorphic, so its Wirtinger derivatives satisfy
\begin{align*}
\frac{\partial F_j}{\partial \bar z_a}=0
\end{align*}
for every $1\leq a\leq n$. Hence, on $U$,
\begin{align*}
f^*(dw_j)=d(F_j\circ\varphi)=\sum_{a=1}^n \frac{\partial F_j}{\partial z_a}\,dz_a.
\end{align*}
Thus $f^*(dw_j)$ is a form of type $(1,0)$. Taking complex conjugates gives
\begin{align*}
f^*(d\bar w_j)=\sum_{a=1}^n \overline{\frac{\partial F_j}{\partial z_a}}\,d\bar z_a,
\end{align*}
so $f^*(d\bar w_j)$ is a form of type $(0,1)$.
Every local section of $\Lambda^{p,q}T^*Y$ is a finite smooth linear combination of wedge products with exactly $p$ factors among the $dw_j$ and exactly $q$ factors among the $d\bar w_j$. Since pullback is multiplicative with respect to wedge products, the pullback of such a wedge product has exactly $p$ factors of type $(1,0)$ and $q$ factors of type $(0,1)$ on $X$. Therefore $f^*$ sends $A^{p,q}(Y)$ into $A^{p,q}(X)$.[/step]