[guided]We now prove the theorem for every positive integer $m$ by induction. The statement has no $m=0$ case, because the formalized statement specifies $\mathbb{N}=\{1,2,3,\dots\}$.
For $m=1$, the hypothesis says $f'(x)=0$ for every $x \in I$. The function $f$ belongs to $C^1(I;\mathbb{R})$, so it is continuous on $I$ and differentiable at every interior point of $I$. Therefore the zero-derivative claim applies with $J=I$ and $g=f$. It gives a real number $a_0 \in \mathbb{R}$ such that
\begin{align*}
f(x)=a_0
\end{align*}
for every $x \in I$. Since the only summand in $\sum_{i=0}^{0} a_i x^i$ is $a_0x^0=a_0$, this is exactly the desired representation for $m=1$.
Assume now that $m \geq 2$ and that the theorem has already been proved for the positive integer $m-1$. Let $f \in C^m(I;\mathbb{R})$ satisfy $f^{(m)}(x)=0$ for every $x \in I$. The natural object to which the induction hypothesis can be applied is the first derivative of $f$, because differentiating $f'$ exactly $m-1$ times gives the $m$th derivative of $f$. Define
\begin{align*}
h: I &\to \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}
by setting $h(x)=f'(x)$ for $x \in I$. Since $f \in C^m(I;\mathbb{R})$, its first derivative satisfies $h \in C^{m-1}(I;\mathbb{R})$. For every $x \in I$,
\begin{align*}
h^{(m-1)}(x)=f^{(m)}(x)=0.
\end{align*}
Thus the induction hypothesis applies to $h$. Hence there exist real numbers $b_0,\dots,b_{m-2} \in \mathbb{R}$ such that
\begin{align*}
h(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{m-2} b_i x^i
\end{align*}
for every $x \in I$.
We now build an explicit polynomial antiderivative of this polynomial expression for $h$. Define
\begin{align*}
Q: \mathbb{R} &\to \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}
by
\begin{align*}
Q(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{m-2} \frac{b_i}{i+1}x^{i+1}.
\end{align*}
By the ordinary differentiation rule for monomials and finite sums,
\begin{align*}
Q'(x)=\sum_{i=0}^{m-2} b_i x^i
\end{align*}
for every $x \in \mathbb{R}$. In particular, for every $x \in I$, we have $Q'(x)=h(x)=f'(x)$.
Define the remainder function
\begin{align*}
r: I &\to \mathbb{R}
\end{align*}
by setting $r(x)=f(x)-Q(x)$ for $x \in I$. Since $f \in C^m(I;\mathbb{R})$ and $m \geq 2$, the function $f$ is continuous on $I$ and differentiable at every interior point of $I$. Since $Q$ is a polynomial function on $\mathbb{R}$, its restriction $Q|_I: I \to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous on $I$ and differentiable at every interior point of $I$. Therefore $r=f-Q|_I$ is continuous on $I$ and differentiable at every interior point of $I$. For every interior point $x$ of $I$,
\begin{align*}
r'(x)=f'(x)-Q'(x)=h(x)-h(x)=0.
\end{align*}
The zero-derivative claim applies to $r$, so there exists $a_0 \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $r(x)=a_0$ for every $x \in I$. Hence
\begin{align*}
f(x)=a_0+\sum_{i=0}^{m-2} \frac{b_i}{i+1}x^{i+1}
\end{align*}
for every $x \in I$.
It remains only to rewrite the coefficients with the indexing used in the theorem statement. For each integer $j$ with $1 \leq j \leq m-1$, define
\begin{align*}
a_j=\frac{b_{j-1}}{j}.
\end{align*}
Together with the constant $a_0$ obtained from the zero-derivative claim, these real numbers satisfy
\begin{align*}
f(x)=\sum_{j=0}^{m-1} a_j x^j
\end{align*}
for every $x \in I$. This proves the induction step, and therefore the theorem holds for every positive integer $m$.[/guided]