[guided]We want to show that the zero locus of the product ideal is exactly the union of the two zero loci. The key point is that evaluation at a point turns multiplication of polynomials into multiplication in the field $k$.
Let $a \in \mathbb{A}^n_k$ be arbitrary. Define $\operatorname{ev}_a: R \to k$ by $\operatorname{ev}_a(f)=f(a)$. This is a ring homomorphism, so for all $f,g \in R$,
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{ev}_a(fg)=\operatorname{ev}_a(f)\operatorname{ev}_a(g).
\end{align*}
First assume $a \in V(I) \cup V(J)$. If $a \in V(I)$, then every $f \in I$ satisfies $\operatorname{ev}_a(f)=0$. Hence for every $f \in I$ and $g \in J$,
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{ev}_a(fg)=\operatorname{ev}_a(f)\operatorname{ev}_a(g)=0.
\end{align*}
If instead $a \in V(J)$, then every $g \in J$ satisfies $\operatorname{ev}_a(g)=0$, and the same product calculation again gives $\operatorname{ev}_a(fg)=0$ for all $f \in I$ and $g \in J$.
Now use the definition of the product ideal. An arbitrary element $h \in IJ$ has the form
\begin{align*}
h=\sum_{r=1}^{m} f_r g_r
\end{align*}
for some $m \in \mathbb{N}$, some $f_1,\ldots,f_m \in I$, and some $g_1,\ldots,g_m \in J$. Since each product $f_rg_r$ vanishes at $a$ and evaluation is additive,
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{ev}_a(h)=\sum_{r=1}^{m}\operatorname{ev}_a(f_rg_r)=0.
\end{align*}
Thus every element of $IJ$ vanishes at $a$, so $a \in V(IJ)$.
For the reverse inclusion, assume $a \in V(IJ)$. We must prove that $a$ belongs to at least one of $V(I)$ and $V(J)$. If $a \in V(I)$, this is already done. Suppose therefore that $a \notin V(I)$. By the definition of $V(I)$, there is some polynomial $f_0 \in I$ such that
\begin{align*}
\operatorname{ev}_a(f_0) \neq 0.
\end{align*}
Now take an arbitrary $g \in J$. Because $f_0 \in I$ and $g \in J$, the product $f_0g$ belongs to $IJ$. Since $a \in V(IJ)$, this product vanishes at $a$:
\begin{align*}
0=\operatorname{ev}_a(f_0g)=\operatorname{ev}_a(f_0)\operatorname{ev}_a(g).
\end{align*}
The field hypothesis is used exactly here: in a field, a nonzero element can be cancelled. Since $\operatorname{ev}_a(f_0) \neq 0$, we obtain $\operatorname{ev}_a(g)=0$. The element $g \in J$ was arbitrary, so every element of $J$ vanishes at $a$. Therefore $a \in V(J)$.
We have shown both inclusions for an arbitrary point $a \in \mathbb{A}^n_k$, so
\begin{align*}
V(I) \cup V(J) = V(IJ).
\end{align*}[/guided]