[guided]Before integrating the pointwise inequality, we must know that the negative part of $V$ is integrable. The Hessian lower bound gives exactly the needed quadratic lower bound. Define
\begin{align*}
a:=V(0),\qquad b:=\nabla V(0)\in\mathbb R^n.
\end{align*}
Fix an arbitrary point $z\in\mathbb R^n$, and define the one-dimensional map $h_z:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$ by
\begin{align*}
h_z(s):=V(sz).
\end{align*}
Taylor's formula with integral remainder gives
\begin{align*}
V(z)=a+b\cdot z+\int_0^1(1-s)z^\top J(\nabla V)_{sz}z\,d\mathcal L^1(s).
\end{align*}
The hypothesis on $V$ says that
\begin{align*}
z^\top J(\nabla V)_{sz}z\ge \lambda |z|^2
\end{align*}
for every $s\in[0,1]$. Therefore
\begin{align*}
V(z)\ge a+b\cdot z+\frac{\lambda}{2}|z|^2.
\end{align*}
Set
\begin{align*}
C_V:=1+|a|+|b|+|\lambda|.
\end{align*}
Since $-|b||z|\ge -|b|(1+|z|^2)$, this lower bound implies
\begin{align*}
V^-(z)\le C_V(1+|z|^2)
\end{align*}
for every $z\in\mathbb R^n$. Since every measure on the geodesic belongs to $\mathcal P_2(\mathbb R^n)$, this bound implies that $V^-$ is integrable with respect to $\mu_0$, $\mu_1$, and $\mu_t$. The assumptions $\mathcal F[\mu_0],\mathcal F[\mu_1]\in\mathbb R$ also imply $V\in L^1(\mu_0)$ and $V\in L^1(\mu_1)$ by the definition of $\mathcal F$.
Now we use the pushforward identity. Since $\mu_t=(T_t)_{\#}\mu_0$, for the Borel function $V:\mathbb R^n\to\mathbb R$ we have
\begin{align*}
\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(y)\,d\mu_t(y)=\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(T_t(x))\,d\mu_0(x)
\end{align*}
whenever the integral is finite or equal to $+\infty$. The pointwise estimate from the previous step says
\begin{align*}
V(T_t(x))\le (1-t)V(x)+tV(T(x))-\frac{\lambda}{2}t(1-t)|T(x)-x|^2.
\end{align*}
The negative parts are integrable, and the endpoint potential energies are finite, so this inequality can be integrated in the extended-real sense. We obtain
\begin{align*}
\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(y)\,d\mu_t(y)\le (1-t)\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(x)\,d\mu_0(x)+t\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(T(x))\,d\mu_0(x)-\frac{\lambda}{2}t(1-t)\int_{\mathbb R^n}|T(x)-x|^2\,d\mu_0(x).
\end{align*}
Because $T_{\#}\mu_0=\mu_1$, the pushforward formula gives
\begin{align*}
\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(T(x))\,d\mu_0(x)=\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(y)\,d\mu_1(y).
\end{align*}
Because $(\operatorname{id}_{\mathbb R^n},T)_{\#}\mu_0$ is optimal for the quadratic cost,
\begin{align*}
\int_{\mathbb R^n}|T(x)-x|^2\,d\mu_0(x)=W_2(\mu_0,\mu_1)^2.
\end{align*}
Substituting these two identities gives
\begin{align*}
\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(y)\,d\mu_t(y)\le (1-t)\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(y)\,d\mu_0(y)+t\int_{\mathbb R^n}V(y)\,d\mu_1(y)-\frac{\lambda}{2}t(1-t)W_2(\mu_0,\mu_1)^2.
\end{align*}
The right-hand side is finite, so the potential energy at time $t$ is finite.[/guided]