[guided]We now build the second model so that the observed association between $A$ and $Y$ is the same as in the first model, but its causal explanation is different. The sample space is again $\Omega_2:=\{0,1\}$ with $\mathcal F_2:=2^{\{0,1\}}$, with probability measure $\mathbb P_2$ satisfying
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_2(\{0\})=\mathbb P_2(\{1\})=\frac{1}{2}.
\end{align*}
Define the unobserved exogenous random variable $U_2:(\Omega_2,\mathcal F_2)\to(\{0,1\},2^{\{0,1\}})$ by $U_2(\omega):=\omega$.
The model $M_2$ has observed endogenous variables $A_2$ and $Y_2$, but both are generated from the same hidden variable:
\begin{align*}
A_2:=U_2.
\end{align*}
\begin{align*}
Y_2:=U_2.
\end{align*}
Thus there is no structural arrow from $A_2$ to $Y_2$; the dependence between the observed variables is induced by the common unobserved cause $U_2$.
We compute the observational distribution directly. If $\omega=0$, then $A_2(\omega)=0$ and $Y_2(\omega)=0$. If $\omega=1$, then $A_2(\omega)=1$ and $Y_2(\omega)=1$. Therefore
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_2(A_2=0,Y_2=0)=\mathbb P_2(\{0\})=\frac{1}{2},
\end{align*}
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_2(A_2=1,Y_2=1)=\mathbb P_2(\{1\})=\frac{1}{2},
\end{align*}
and the off-diagonal events are empty:
\begin{align*}
\{A_2=0,Y_2=1\}=\varnothing,\qquad \{A_2=1,Y_2=0\}=\varnothing.
\end{align*}
Hence
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_2(A_2=0,Y_2=1)=\mathbb P_2(A_2=1,Y_2=0)=0.
\end{align*}
For comparison, in the direct-cause model we have $A_1=U_1$ and $Y_1=A_1$, so $A_1(\omega)=Y_1(\omega)=\omega$ for every $\omega\in\Omega_1$. Therefore the observational law of $(A_1,Y_1)$ is
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_1(A_1=0,Y_1=0)=\frac{1}{2},
\end{align*}
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_1(A_1=1,Y_1=1)=\frac{1}{2},
\end{align*}
and
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_1(A_1=0,Y_1=1)=\mathbb P_1(A_1=1,Y_1=0)=0.
\end{align*}
The computation above shows that the observational law of $(A_2,Y_2)$ assigns exactly the same four masses. Hence, for every $(a,y)\in\{0,1\}^2$,
\begin{align*}
\mathbb P_{M_1}(A=a,Y=y)=\mathbb P_{M_2}(A=a,Y=y).
\end{align*}
The important point is that the same joint distribution of the observed pair $(A,Y)$ has two different causal explanations: direct causation in $M_1$ and hidden common causation in $M_2$.[/guided]