[guided]Assume, aiming for a contradiction, that the claimed forbidden solution exists. Thus we have integers $x,y,z\in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $\gcd(x,y,z)=1$ and $x^2+y^2=3z^2$.
The useful modulus is $3$ because the right-hand side is visibly divisible by $3$. We first record exactly what squares can look like modulo $3$. Every integer $n\in \mathbb{Z}$ has one of the residues $0,1,2$ modulo $3$. Squaring those three possibilities gives $0^2\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$, $1^2\equiv 1 \pmod{3}$, and $2^2\equiv 4\equiv 1 \pmod{3}$. So an integer square is congruent only to $0$ or $1$ modulo $3$.
Now reduce the equation modulo $3$. Since $3z^2$ is divisible by $3$, the equation gives $x^2+y^2\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$. There are only four residue possibilities for the pair $(x^2,y^2)$ modulo $3$: $(0,0)$, $(0,1)$, $(1,0)$, and $(1,1)$. Their sums are respectively $0$, $1$, $1$, and $2$ modulo $3$. Hence the congruence $x^2+y^2\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$ forces the first case: $x^2\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$ and $y^2\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$. Using the same square-residue computation, $n^2\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$ occurs exactly when $n\equiv 0 \pmod{3}$. Therefore $3\mid x$ and $3\mid y$.[/guided]